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Originally Posted by Damien
Well unfortunately the judge doesn't have your knowledge of US law so for now it's been stopped.
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In his order, Mr Trump quotes a 1952 immigration law that gives the president the ability to suspend entry "of all aliens or any class of aliens" into the US when he deems it "detrimental to the interests of the United States."
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So that applies to GROUPS, whereas the nonsense for the appeals only applies to INDIVIDUALS.
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A 1965 revision of the law, however, says individuals cannot be "discriminated against in the issuance of an immigrant visa" because of their "race, sex, nationality, place of birth or place of residence".
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So he CAN ban people from certain countries, but he CAN'T ban an INDIVIDUAL on those listed criteria.
ANY ban of whatever sort is inevitably going to impact one group more another. Either the 1952 law exists or it doesn't. Otherwise on what basis could there ever be for the 1952 law? The 1952 LAW DOES EXIST therefore he is allowed to impose a ban.
Even the European Convention on Human Rights would allow a ban. That is supposedly held up a beacon of "Rights". It is classed as an administrative issue and NOT subject to the "right to a fair hearing".